The Human Body

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. What is the major function of the lymphatic system?
a. return leaked fluids back to the cardiovascular system
b. produce offspring
c. eliminate nitrogen-containing metabolic wastes from the body
d. break down food into absorbable units
e. secrete hormones to regulate body processes such as growth and reproduction

2. What are two organ systems that are involved in the excretion of wastes from the body?
a. digestive and urinary
b. cardiovascular and skeletal
c. muscular and skeletal
d. endocrine and nervous
e. cardiovascular and nervous

3. Which of the following systems is matched most accurately to the life function it provides?
a. integumentary system-movement
b. nervous system-excretion
c. muscular system-maintaining boundaries
d. nervous system-responsiveness
e. respiratory system-digestion

4. Which survival need accounts for 60 to 80 percent of body weight?
a. nutrients
b. oxygen
c. water
d. minerals
e. vitamins

5. Which of the following is the correct order of elements in a control system?
a. receptor, stimulus, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response
b. receptor, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response
c. effector, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, receptor, response
d. stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response
e. stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response

6. Which of the following elements of a control system detects a change?
a. control center
b. stimulus
c. effector
d. receptor
e. efferent pathway

7. Positive feedback systems .
a. involve blood clotting and the birthing of a baby
b. operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and increases
c. operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is shut off or reduced
d. involve blood clotting and the birthing of a baby, and operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and increases
e. involve blood clotting and the birthing of a baby, and operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is shut off or reduced

8. An atom with 6 protons, 7 neutrons, and 6 electrons shares four pairs of electrons with four other atoms. This atom is now considered to be .
a. a cation
b. an anion
c. a neutral atom
d. stable
e. an ion

9. An atom has 6 protons, 8 neutrons, and 6 electrons. Its atomic mass is .
a. 2
b. 6
c. 8
d. 14
e. 20

10. The atomic number of an atom reveals the number of .
a. electrons in the atomic nucleus
b. protons in the atomic nucleus
c. protons plus neutrons
d. protons plus electrons
e. neutrons plus electrons

11. Isotopes have different numbers of ; thus, they also have different .
a. protons; atomic numbers
b. neutrons; atomic masses
c. electrons; atomic numbers
d. protons; atomic masses
e. neutrons; atomic numbers

12. A molecule of methane, CH4, is known specifically as a(n) .
a. compound
b. radioisotope
c. element
d. atom
e. anion

13. The subatomic particles that are responsible for the chemical behavior of atoms are the
.
a. protons
b. neutrons
c. electrons
d. isotopes
e. ions

14. Passive processes that move substances across membranes .
a. utilize ATP
b. employ protein pumps
c. transport substances against their concentration gradients
d. require no ATP
e. include exocytosis and endocytosis

15. Osmosis transports water across membranes using .
a. ATP
b. solute pumping
c. aquaporins
d. sodium-potassium pump
e. vesicles

16. What assists the movement of substances by facilitated diffusion?
a. ATP
b. protein carrier or channel
c. lysosomes
d. aquaporins
e. solute pumps

17. What is required for diffusion to occur?
a. protein carrier or channel
b. concentration gradient
c. ATP
d. solute pump
e. ribosomes

18. Two types of endocytosis are .
a. cellular secretion and solute pumping
b. solute pumping and active transport
c. active transport and phagocytosis
d. phagocytosis and pinocytosis
e. pinocytosis and passive transport

19. A solution that contains fewer solutes than the cell is .
a. hypotonic
b. hypertonic
c. intravenous
d. isotonic
e. Ringer’s lactate

20. Jan got her microscope slides mixed up in lab as they were unlabeled. The slide with abundant adipose tissue should be labeled as the .
a. epidermis
b. papillary layer of the dermis
c. subcutaneous tissue
d. reticular layer of the dermis

e. stratum corneum
21. The two main layers of skin are .
a. papillary layer and reticular layer
b. stratum basale and dermis
c. epidermis and dermis
d. stratum corneum and dermis
e. epidermis and hypodermis

22. A needle pierces through the epidermal layers of the forearm in which of the following order?
1. stratum basale
2. stratum corneum
3. stratum granulosum
4. stratum lucidum
5. stratum spinosum
a. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
b. 1, 5, 3, 4, 2
c. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
d. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
e. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5

23. Which of the following homeostatic imbalances is caused by a herpes simplex infection?
a. athlete’s foot
b. cold sores
c. impetigo
d. contact dermatitis
e. cyanosis

24. The “tanning” effect (darkening of the skin) that occurs when a person is exposed to the sun is due to .
a. melanin
b. keratin
c. oil
d. Langerhans cells
e. sweat

25. The layer of the epidermis in which cells die because of their inability to get nutrients and oxygen is the clear layer called .
a. stratum spinosum
b. stratum granulosum
c. stratum basale
d. stratum corneum
e. stratum lucidum

26. Which of these bone markings is a projection that serves as a site for muscle or ligament attachment?
a. meatus
b. fossa
c. foramen
d. fissure
e. tubercle

27. Which of the following bones is considered part of the axial skeleton?
a. femur
b. sternum
c. radius
d. metatarsals
e. scapula

28. The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (Haversian system) contains .
a. cartilage and lamellae
b. osteoclasts and osteoblasts
c. yellow marrow and perforating, or Sharpey’s, fibers
d. blood vessels and nerve fibers
e. red marrow

29. The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called .
a. lacunae
b. perforating (Volkmann’s) canals
c. central (Haversian) canals
d. trabeculae
e. lamellae

30. What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?
a. elastic connective tissue
b. dense fibrous connective tissue
c. fibrocartilage
d. hyaline cartilage
e. loose fibrous connective tissue

31. What type of bone cell is primarily active when bone growth occurs?
a. osteocyte
b. erythrocyte
c. chondrocyte
d. osteoblast
e. osteoclast

32. A motor neuron and all of the skeletal muscle fibers it stimulates are termed a .
a. myofilament
b. synaptic cleft
c. motor unit
d. neuromuscular junction
e. neurotransmitter

33. Why are calcium ions necessary for skeletal muscle contraction?
a. calcium increases the action potential transmitted along the sarcolemma
b. calcium releases the inhibition on Z discs
c. calcium triggers the binding of myosin to actin
d. calcium causes ATP binding to actin
e. calcium binds to regulatory proteins on the myosin filaments, changing both their shape and their position on the thick filaments

34. The mechanical force of contraction is generated by .
a. shortening of the thick filaments
b. shortening of the thin filaments
c. a sliding of thin filaments past thick filaments
d. the “accordian-like” folding of thin and thick filaments
e. the temporary disappearance of thin filaments

35. Acetylcholine is .
a. an ion pump on the postsynaptic membrane
b. a source of energy for muscle contraction
c. a component of thick myofilaments
d. an oxygen-binding protein
e. a neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle

36. The gap between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell is called the .
a. motor unit
b. sarcomere
c. neuromuscular junction
d. synaptic cleft
e. cross bridge

37. Neurotransmitters are released upon stimulation from a nerve impulse by the .
a. myofibrils
b. sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. thick filaments
d. axon terminals of the motor neuron
e. sarcolemma of the muscle cell

38. Impulse conduction is fastest in neurons that are .
a. myelinated
b. unmyelinated
c. sensory
d. motor
e. cerebral

39. Bipolar neurons are commonly .
a. motor neurons
b. called neuroglia
c. found in ganglia
d. found in the eye and nose
e. more abundant in adults than in children

40. During the resting state, a neuron is .
a. polarized with more sodium ions outside the cell and more potassium ions inside the cell
b. propagating the action potential
c. depolarizing and generating an action potential
d. restoring the ionic conditions utilizing the sodium-potassium pump
e. repolarizing as potassium ions diffuse out of the cell

41. Immediately after an action potential is propagated, which one of the following ions rapidly diffuses out of the cell into the tissue fluid .
a. sodium
b. chloride
c. calcium
d. potassium
e. magnesium

42. An action potential is caused by an influx of these ions into the cell.
a. potassium
b. sodium
c. calcium
d. magnesium
e. both potassium and sodium

43. Nerve impulse transmissions occurring along myelinated neurons are called .
a. saltatory conduction
b. threshold
c. graded potential
d. sodium-potassium pump
e. all-or-none response

44. Neurons either conduct action potentials along the length of their axons, or they remain at rest. This statement best describes .
a. a reflex arc
b. the all-or-none response
c. repolarization
d. saltatory conduction
e. graded potential

45. The pigmented portion of the eye that has a rounded opening through which light passes is the .
a. iris
b. lens
c. cornea
d. sclera
e. retina

46. The three sets of color receptors within the retina are sensitive to wavelengths of visible light that are .
a. red, green, and yellow
b. red, blue, and yellow
c. green, yellow, and purple
d. orange, green, and purple
e. blue, green, and red

47. Which area of the retina lacks rods and cones and therefore does not detect images?
a. optic disc (blind spot)
b. optic nerve
c. choroid
d. fovea centralis
e. ciliary body

48. The aqueous humor of the eye is reabsorbed into venous blood through the .
a. inferior lacrimal canal
b. nasolacrimal duct
c. scleral venous sinus (canal of Schlemm)
d. ciliary body
e. pupil

49. Which of the following is a sex-linked condition that more often affects males?
a. conjunctivitis
b. color blindness
c. night blindness
d. glaucoma
e. cataracts

50. The gel-like substance that reinforces the eyeball and prevents it from collapsing inward is the
a. aqueous humor
b. ciliary body
c. choroid
d. vitreous humor (vitreous body)
e. scleral venous sinus (canal of Schlemm)

51. The hormone that stimulates follicle development by female ovaries and sperm development by male testes is .
a. luteinizing hormone (LH)
b. prolactin
c. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. progesterone
e. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

52. Hyposecretion of growth hormone during childhood leads to .
a. pituitary dwarfism
b. Cushing’s disease
c. acromegaly
d. myxedema
e. gigantism

53. Releasing and inhibiting hormones produced by the hypothalamus influence the activities of the .
a. pineal gland
b. anterior pituitary gland
c. adrenal gland
d. posterior pituitary gland
e. thyroid gland

54. The two hormones released by the thyroid gland are .
a. calcitonin and thyroid hormone
b. calcitonin and parathyroid hormone (PTH)
c. thyroid hormone and parathyroid hormone (PTH)
d. prolactin (PRL) and oxytocin
e. oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

55. Which hormone is alternately known as vasopressin due to its effect on blood vessel diameter and blood pressure?
a. oxytocin
b. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
c. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
d. growth hormone (GH)
e. luteinizing hormone (LH)

56. Which two hormones play a role in promoting the milk reflex and in maintaining breast milk production in a mother’s breasts?
a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and thyroid hormone
b. growth hormone and glucagon
c. prolactin (PRL) and oxytocin
d. parathyroid hormone (PTH) and thyroid hormone
e. prolactin (PRL) and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

57. The two major groups of white blood cells are .
a. leukocytes and erythrocytes
b. platelets and megakaryocytes
c. neutrophils and basophils
d. granulocytes and agranulocytes
e. granulocytes and leukocytes

58. Which of the following cells are classified as granulocytes?
a. neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
b. lymphocytes and monocytes
c. eosinophils and monocytes
d. basophils and lymphocytes
e. neutrophils, lymphocytes, and eosinophils

59. Which type of granulocyte produces antibodies?
a. eosinophils
b. basophils
c. neutrophils
d. lymphocytes
e. monocytes

60. The most numerous of the white blood cells are the .
a. lymphocytes
b. neutrophils
c. eosinophils
d. monocytes
e. basophils

61. Which type of leukocyte contains heparin, an anticoagulant?
a. neutrophil
b. monocyte
c. lymphocyte
d. basophil
e. eosinophil

62. Place these leukocytes in order from the most common to the least common.
1. basophil
2. eosinophil
3. lymphocyte
4. monocyte
5. neutrophil
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
c. 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
d. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
e. 5, 3, 4, 2, 1

63. Which valve guards the base of the aorta and opens when the ventricles are contracting?
a. mitral valve
b. aortic semilunar valve
c. bicuspid valve
d. pulmonary semilunar valve
e. tricuspid valve

64. Which blood vessels are direct branches of the left coronary artery?
a. circumflex and marginal arteries
b. anterior and posterior interventricular arteries
c. anterior interventricular and marginal arteries
d. anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries
e. posterior interventricular and marginal arteries

65. The sinoatrial node is located in the .
a. aorta
b. right atrium
c. left atrium
d. right ventricle
e. interventricular septum

66. Which one of the following represents the correct path for the transmission of an impulse in the intrinsic conduction system of the heart?
a. atrioventricular (AV) node, sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His), right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
b. atrioventricular (AV) node, atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His), sinoatrial (SA) node, Purkinje fibers, right and left bundle branches
c. sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His), atrioventricular (AV) node, Purkinje fibers, right and left bundle branches
d. sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His), atrioventricular (AV) node, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
e. sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) node, atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His), right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

67. Which vessel carries deoxygenated blood from cardiac circulation to the right atrium of the heart?
a. coronary sulcus
b. coronary artery
c. coronary sinus
d. circumflex artery
e. pulmonary vein

68. Which of these events is NOT associated with ventricular systole?
a. atrioventricular valves close
b. heart is relaxed
c. blood rushes out of the ventricles
d. pressure in ventricles rises
e. semilunar valves open

69. Where is the thymus located?
a. pharynx
b. beneath sternum overlying heart
c. armpits, groin, and neck
d. small intestine
e. left side of abdominopelvic cavity

70. Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) includes the .
a. spleen
b. thymus
c. tonsils only
d. tonsils, the appendix, and Peyer’s patches
e. tonsils and spleen

71. The body’s first line of defense against the invasion of disease-causing microorganisms is
a. phagocytes
b. natural killer cells
c. skin and mucous membranes
d. inflammatory response
e. fever

72. The adaptive (specific) defense system .
a. is an innate defense
b. issues an attack specific to particular foreign substances
c. includes the skin and mucous membranes
d. is the body’s first line of defense against invading pathogens
e. provides mechanical barriers to the body

73. Which one of the following is NOT one of the nonspecific body defenses?
a. intact skin
b. antibody production
c. the inflammatory response
d. fever
e. natural killer cells

74. The process by which neutrophils are squeezed through the capillary walls during the inflammatory process is called .
a. agglutination
b. chemotaxis
c. diapedesis
d. coagulation
e. antibody production

75. Following the removal of the larynx, a person would be unable to .
a. speak
b. sneeze
c. eat
d. hear
e. breathe

76. The opening between the vocal cords is called the .
a. epiglottis
b. glottis
c. larynx
d. thyroid cartilage
e. esophagus

77. The flap of elastic cartilage that protects food from entering the larynx when swallowing is the
a. glottis
b. thyroid cartilage
c. Adam’s apple
d. epiglottis
e. trachea

78. Vibration due to exhaled air that results in speech is a function of the .
a. complete voice box
b. true vocal cords
c. false vocal cords
d. glottis
e. epiglottis

79. The superior portion of each lung is the .
a. pleura
b. base
c. apex
d. mediastinum
e. fissure

80. The serous membrane covering the surface of the lungs is called the .
a. mediastinum
b. visceral pleura
c. parietal pleura
d. main (primary) bronchi
e. pleurisy

81. What lymphatic tissue in the submucosa of the small intestine prevents bacteria from entering the blood?
a. Peyer’s patches
b. rugae
c. appendix
d. circular folds (plicae circulares)
e. lacteals

82. The small intestine extends from the .
a. cardioesophageal sphincter to the pyloric sphincter (valve)
b. pyloric sphincter (valve) to the ileocecal valve
c. ileocecal valve to the appendix
d. appendix to the sigmoid colon
e. cardioesophageal sphincter to ileocecal valve

83. What organs release secretions into the duodenum of the small intestine?
a. pancreas and spleen
b. appendix and Peyer’s patches
c. liver and pancreas
d. cecum and appendix
e. spleen and liver

84. Enzymes and bile are carried by the pancreatic duct and bile duct into the .
a. duodenum
b. jejunum
c. ileocecal valve
d. ileum
e. large intestine

85. One of the main functions of the small intestine is .
a. absorption of nutrients
b. absorption of water
c. waste secretion
d. vitamin conversion
e. mineral secretion

86. Which one of the following is NOT a modification which is designed to increase surface area for absorption within the small intestine?
a. microvilli
b. villi
c. Peyer’s patches
d. circular folds
e. plicae circulares

87. Most nephrons are located within the renal .
a. pelvis
b. calyces
c. medulla
d. pyramids
e. cortex
88. The percentage of filtrate eventually reabsorbed into the bloodstream is closest to . a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 80%
e. 99%

89. Of the capillary beds associated with each nephron, the one that is both fed and drained by arterioles is the .
a. peritubular capillaries
b. pyramidal capillaries
c. glomerulus
d. Henle capillaries
e. Bowman’s capillaries

90. Filtrate typically does NOT contain .
a. water
b. blood proteins
c. glucose
d. ions
e. amino acids

91. The nonselective, passive process performed by the glomerulus that forms blood plasma with out blood proteins is called .
a. micturition
b. tubular secretion
c. glomerular filtration
d. tubular reabsorption
e. glomerular reabsorption

92. Thick, clear mucus that cleanses the urethra of acidic urine is produced by the .
a. testes
b. seminal glands (vesicles)
c. prostate
d. bulbo-urethral glands
e. epididymis

93. Milky-colored fluids secreted from the prostate .
a. nourish sperm
b. activate sperm
c. cleanse the urethra
d. neutralize urine
e. are endocrine only

94. The spongy tissue of the penis fills with blood during sexual excitement and causes the penis to enlarge and become rigid during .
a. erection
b. circumcision
c. ejaculation
d. emission
e. parturition

95. Circumcision for males removes the .
a. glans penis
b. shaft of the penis
c. scrotum
d. prepuce
e. ductus (vas) deferens

96. What effect does follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) have on males?
a. Male testes are not influenced by FSH.
b. FSH functions solely in females.
c. FSH stimulates sperm production in males.
d. FSH causes the testes to enlarge in size.
e. FSH stimulates estrogen production in males.

97. The primitive stem cell of spermatogenesis, which is found on the periphery of each seminiferous tubule, is called a .
a. spermatogonium
b. spermatid
c. primary spermatocyte
d. secondary spermatocyte
e. sperm

98. Which statement regarding meiosis is correct?
a. Meiosis produces four gametes.
b. Meiosis consists of one nuclear division only.
c. Meiosis produces two daughter cells.
d. Meiosis occurs in all cells of the body.
e. Meiosis produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell.

99. What results from spermiogenesis?
a. four spermatogonia
b. four spermatids
c. two sperm
d. two spermatids
e. four sperm

100. Each spermatid and each ovum have .
a. 23 pairs of chromosomes
b. 23 chromosomes
c. 46 pairs of chromosomes
d. 46 chromosomes
e. 2n chromosomes